His father was a complete piece of shit and treated him horribly and also he was never really allowed a proper childhood.
So I have heard some people argue that perhaps he was not a pedophile, but rather just really mentally ill, partly believing to be a kid that just wanted child playmates. Still wrong for an adult to act like this, but perhaps there was no sexual misconduct.
Not sure what to believe and perhaps I just don't want him to be a villain, but I would like to hear if there is some concrete evidence.
The thing is - there is no evidence of sexual misconduct. He's been investigated by just about everyone from local cops to the FBI since the early 90s, and despite the outcry there's never been evidence. Considering how our justice system dealt with another high-profile figure's history of sexual abuse, I have to believe something concrete would've turned up by now.
Inappropriate? Absolutely. Illegal? Pedophilia? Doubtful. I mean, provided we genuinely believe in "Innocent until proven guilty" ideal...
